OT: protectionist practices?

[Fritz]

Alan Dayley wrote:

> First of all let me state that I agree with you. I am confused about
> your distinction between "government" and "the politicians occupying it."
>
> I understand that our current form of government exists based on a set
> of laws and therefore, out lives any politician or functionary that
> serves in the government.  However, what government does is directed by
> those very politicians so in the context of this discussion, government
> IS the politicians.  Government HAS whatever interest the people
> currently running it have.
>   
The distinction is important when we look at it from a citizen's point 
of view.
In modern societies, we all live under an implied "social contract" where we
give up some things to gain other things ... e.g. we trade our "right" to
drive on the left side of the road for greater safety.  When we enter 
military
service or become naturalized citizens we pledge allegiance to a set of
principles that we promise to uphold/observe.  So government derives its 
power
simply because we, as citizens relinquish some privileges.  Note:  We 
relinquish
to a set of PRINCIPLES (i.e. laws) not to some particular public servant 
(i.e. politician)
nor to certain powerful corporations.   Under this system, as citizens, 
we believe that the
public servants  are on our payroll ... after all, we pay the taxes that 
provide their salary.

So the question then becomes:  what happens when the public servants are no
longer on the citizen's payroll?  

Which brings to ...
> That the people running the government have been and are influenced by
> lobbyists and corporate interests is not in question at all.  The RIAA
> or MPAA or any other group does not create the laws, government does.
> That such laws may be "purchased" by corporate interests through
> manipulation of the politicians is not in doubt but that does not change
> the fact that the GOVERNMENT is what creates and enforces said laws.
>   
Well, not necessarily.  At some point, when the politicians are sufficiently
"bought off", you will be forced to admit that we no longer have a 
government
"of the people, by the people, and for the people" but rather a proxy 
for the
extremely wealthy.  As I stated earlier, it is at this point that proxy 
government becomes
the "stick-up gun" for wealthy interests, i.e. money flows from many Joe 
Lunch-Box'es
to a few Rockefellers.  (e.g., look at how wages are treated vs. capital 
gains.)

Your frustration and anger are misplaced when you direct it at the 
"government" -
it has been eviscerated of its checks and balances and it no longer 
serves it citizens.
You've heard of the phrase "puppet government"?  Nobody takes a puppet 
government
seriously or pretends that it actually has any power to serve the 
citizens anymore.

Look at the following situation:  The "Mob" employs
"hit men" to murder people.  Prosecutors will often offer immunity to 
the guy
that actually pulled the trigger (the hit man) in order to go after the 
Mob Boss.
We recognize that the hit man is just a proxy for much more powerful 
forces and
we don't spend too much time/energy on him because he's not the real 
problem.

> Therefore, the government does have an interest.
>
> You even state "Our federal government has evolved into the "stick-up
> gun" for large, private, corporate interests" which sound like
> government interest to me.
>   
The corporations get laws to reap them $Billions$ and the politicians
get the (relative) chump change to fund their re-elections. 
That's the understood agreement.
> I think we are splitting hairs here but are essentially on the same
> side.  But, I am curious to understand your point.  What do you mean
> that government has not interest but the politicians running it do?  And
> why is that distinction important?
>
> Alan
>
>
>   
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